Polity MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Polity - Download Free PDF

Last updated on Jul 17, 2025

Latest Polity MCQ Objective Questions

Polity Question 1:

TRIFED operates under which central ministry?

  1. Ministry of Environment
  2. Ministry of Commerce
  3. Ministry of Tribal Affairs
  4. Ministry of Rural Development

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Ministry of Tribal Affairs

Polity Question 1 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Key Points

  • TRIFED stands for Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India.
  • It operates under the Ministry of Tribal Affairs to promote the welfare of tribal communities.
  • TRIFED was established in 1987 as a national-level cooperative body.
  • Its primary objective is to facilitate the marketing of tribal products, including handicrafts and forest produce.
  • TRIFED organizes various initiatives such as Van Dhan Vikas Kendras to enhance livelihood opportunities for tribal populations.

Additional Information

  • Ministry of Tribal Affairs: Established in 1999, this ministry is dedicated to the socio-economic development of India’s tribal population.
  • Van Dhan Vikas Kendras: These are centers launched under TRIFED to empower tribal communities through sustainable livelihoods involving minor forest produce.
  • Minor Forest Produce (MFP): These include items like bamboo, honey, medicinal plants, and tendu leaves harvested by tribal communities.
  • Tribes India: TRIFED runs the “Tribes India” initiative to market tribal handicrafts and products both domestically and internationally.
  • TRIFOOD Project: A collaboration between TRIFED and the Ministry of Food Processing Industries to promote value addition in tribal food products.

Polity Question 2:

The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was passed in which year?

  1. 1908
  2. 1897
  3. 1905
  4. 1907

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 1 : 1908

Polity Question 2 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is 1908.

Key Points

  • The Chotanagpur Tenancy Act was enacted in the year 1908 to safeguard the land rights of tribal communities in the Chotanagpur region, now part of Jharkhand.
  • The Act primarily focuses on prohibiting the transfer of tribal land to non-tribals without the permission of the Deputy Commissioner.
  • It was introduced to prevent the exploitation and displacement of indigenous people by moneylenders and landowners.
  • The Act applies to the districts of Ranchi, Lohardaga, Gumla, Khunti, Simdega, and parts of Palamu and Hazaribagh in Jharkhand.
  • It remains a significant piece of legislation ensuring the protection of tribal land ownership and promoting social justice for tribal communities.

Additional Information

  • Tribal Land Rights: The Act ensures that tribal lands cannot be sold or transferred to non-tribals, thereby protecting the economic and cultural interests of the indigenous population.
  • Tenancy Provisions: It defines the rights and obligations of tenants and landlords, aiming to prevent the exploitation of tenants by landlords.
  • Scheduled Areas: The Chotanagpur region was declared a scheduled area under the Fifth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, which provides additional safeguards for tribal communities.
  • Amendments: Over the years, amendments have been made to the Act to address emerging challenges and ensure its relevance in changing socio-economic contexts.
  • Judicial Oversight: The Act allows for legal recourse in case of disputes, and courts have upheld its provisions to protect tribal interests.

Polity Question 3:

In the Indian legal system, Article 323B of the Constitution empowers both the Parliament and state legislatures to establish tribunals for adjudicating disputes related to various "other matters".
Which of the following statements regarding this is incorrect?

  1. Both the Parliament and the State Legislature can establish tribunals for other matters.
  2. A hierarchy of tribunals under Article 323B may be created.
  3. The verdict of such tribunals can only be challenged in the Supreme Court.
  4. Tribunals established under Article 323B include the National Green Tribunal, Competition Appellate Tribunal, and Securities Appellate Tribunal. 

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : The verdict of such tribunals can only be challenged in the Supreme Court.

Polity Question 3 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

  • Article 323B of the Indian Constitution empowers both the Parliament and State Legislatures to establish tribunals for adjudicating disputes related to specified matters such as taxation, industrial disputes, land reforms, and others.
  • Both the Parliament and State Legislatures can create tribunals to address "other matters" as specified under this Article, ensuring flexibility in addressing various issues.
  • The incorrect statement is Option 3: "The verdict of such tribunals can only be challenged in the Supreme Court." This is incorrect because tribunal verdicts can also be challenged in High Courts under Article 226/227 of the Constitution.
  • Tribunals do not replace the judiciary but act as specialized adjudicatory bodies for specific cases, ensuring faster resolution of disputes.
  • Examples of tribunals established under Article 323B include the National Green Tribunal (NGT), Competition Appellate Tribunal, and Securities Appellate Tribunal, among others.

Additional Information

  • Article 323B: This article allows the formation of tribunals for adjudication on specific matters such as taxation, foreign exchange, land reforms, labor disputes, and others.
  • Judicial Review: The power of judicial review by High Courts and the Supreme Court is not completely ousted by the establishment of tribunals. High Courts can review tribunal decisions under Article 226/227.
  • National Green Tribunal (NGT): Established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, it adjudicates environmental cases and ensures the effective disposal of cases related to environmental protection.
  • Hierarchy of Tribunals: Tribunals under Article 323B may form a hierarchy, with appellate tribunals functioning above lower-level tribunals for specific matters.
  • Constitutional Amendments: Articles 323A and 323B were introduced through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976, to address the need for specialized adjudicatory bodies.

Polity Question 4:

Identify which of the Parliamentary Committees is referred to in the following statements?
I. This committee was set up in 1950 on the recommendation of the then Finance Minister John Mathai.
II. This committee is referred to as the "Continuous Economy Committee."
III. The chairman of this committee belongs to the Ruling Party and is appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker.

  1. Public Accounts Committee
  2. Estimates Committee
  3. Committee on Public Undertakings
  4. Business Advisory Committee.

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Estimates Committee

Polity Question 4 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Estimates Committee.

Key Points

  • The Estimates Committee was established in 1950 on the recommendation of the then Finance Minister John Mathai.
  • It is often referred to as the "Continuous Economy Committee" due to its role in ensuring financial discipline and economy.
  • The primary function of the committee is to examine the budget estimates presented by the government and suggest economies in public spending.
  • The chairman of the Estimates Committee is always a member of the Ruling Party and is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
  • This committee consists of 30 members, all of whom are drawn exclusively from the Lok Sabha.

Additional Information

  • Parliamentary Committees:
    • These are committees formed by the Parliament to facilitate detailed scrutiny and discussion on various issues.
    • They are classified into two types: Standing Committees (permanent) and Ad Hoc Committees (temporary).
    • Standing Committees include Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, Committee on Public Undertakings, and others.
  • Functions of the Estimates Committee:
    • Examines whether the money is well spent within the allocated budget.
    • Suggests alternative policies to bring efficiency in administration.
    • Ensures that public funds are utilized for maximum benefit.
  • Public Accounts Committee vs. Estimates Committee:
    • The Public Accounts Committee reviews the audit reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG).
    • The Estimates Committee examines the budget estimates presented by the government.
  • Chairmanship:
    • While the chairman of the Estimates Committee belongs to the ruling party, the Public Accounts Committee is chaired by a member of the opposition.
    • This ensures bipartisan scrutiny of government spending.
  • Significance:
    • The Estimates Committee plays a vital role in ensuring financial accountability and transparency in government spending.
    • Its recommendations help in policy formulation for better resource utilization.

Polity Question 5:

Which of the following statements regarding the State Legislative Council is incorrect?

  1. The constitution has fixed the minimum and maximum strength of a State Legislative Council.
  2. The actual strength of a State Legislative Council is determined by the Parliament.
  3. The minimum and maximum strength is capped to ensure the dominance of the State Legislative Assembly.
  4. Formation of a State Legislative Council is deemed to be a Constitutional Amendment.

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Formation of a State Legislative Council is deemed to be a Constitutional Amendment.

Polity Question 5 Detailed Solution

The correct answer is Formation of a State Legislative Council is deemed to be a Constitutional Amendment.

Key Points

  • A State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is the upper house in the bicameral legislature of some states in India, established under Article 169 of the Constitution.
  • The Constitution has fixed the minimum strength of a Legislative Council at 40 members and the maximum strength at one-third of the total strength of the State Legislative Assembly.
  • The actual strength of a State Legislative Council is determined by the Parliament based on the constitutional provisions, not directly by the state government.
  • The formation or abolition of a State Legislative Council does not require a Constitutional Amendment. It is governed by a parliamentary law passed under Article 169 of the Constitution.
  • The State Legislative Assembly must pass a resolution by a special majority to recommend the creation or abolition of the Council, which is then acted upon by the Parliament.

Additional Information

  • Article 169: Empowers Parliament to create or abolish Legislative Councils in states based on a resolution passed by the State Legislative Assembly.
  • Composition of Legislative Council: Members are elected through various methods—direct elections, indirect elections, and nominations. One-third are elected by the Legislative Assembly, one-third by local bodies, one-twelfth by teachers, one-twelfth by graduates, and the remaining members are nominated by the Governor.
  • Bicameral Legislature: Only a few states in India, such as Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Telangana, have bicameral legislatures with Legislative Councils.
  • Special Majority: The resolution for creating or abolishing a Legislative Council requires a special majority, meaning a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
  • Council Abolition: States like Tamil Nadu and Punjab, which once had Legislative Councils, abolished them due to concerns about their utility and financial burden.

Top Polity MCQ Objective Questions

Rule ________ (of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha) does NOT involve a formal motion before the Parliament House, hence no voting can take place after discussion on matters under this rule.

  1. 149
  2. 193
  3. 186
  4. 158

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : 193

Polity Question 6 Detailed Solution

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  • Rule 193 (of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha) does not involve a formal motion before the Parliament House, hence no voting can take place after the discussion on matters under this rule.
  • Rule 184 allows voting but rule 193 doesn't.
  • Lok Sabha is the lower house of the Parliament, while Rajya Sabha is the upper house.

Article 32 belongs to which part of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Part II
  2. Part I
  3. Part III
  4. Part IV

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Part III

Polity Question 7 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Part III.

Key Points

  • Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives the right to individuals to move to the Supreme Court to seek justice.
  • Under Article 32, the parliament can also entrust any other court to exercise the power of the Supreme Court, provided that it is within its Jurisdiction.
  • Article 32 is for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  • The nature of the Writ Jurisdiction provided under this Article is discretionary.
  • There are five types of Writs as provided under Article 32 of the Constitution:
    • Habeas Corpus.
    • Quo Warranto.
    • Mandamus.
    • Certiorari.
    • Prohibition.

Additional Information

Part of Constitution Subject Matter Articles
Part I Union and its Territory 1 to 4
Part II Citizenship 5 to 11
Part III Fundamental Rights 12 to 35
Part IV Directive Principles of State Policy 36 to 51

Which of the following provision is not borrowed by the Indian Constitution from the Canadian Constitution?

  1. Federal system with fortified center
  2. Appointment of state governors by the center
  3. Advisory adjudication of supreme court
  4. Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha

Polity Question 8 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Nomination of Members to Rajya Sabha.

  • The procedure for the nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha is borrowed from Ireland.

Key Points

  • Canadian Constitution
    • Advisory Jurisdiction of Supreme Court.
    • A federal system with a strong center.
    • Residual powers vest at the center.
    • Appointment of State Governors.

Additional Information

Sources of Indian Constitution

Source Provisions
Indian Govt. Act 1935
  • Federal system
  • Power of the judiciary
  • Public service commission
  • Governor's office,
  • Administrative details.
USA 
  • Fundamental Rights
  • Independence of Judiciary
  • Judicial Review
  • Impeachment of the President
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High Court Judges
  • Post of Vice President
Britain
  • Parliamentary government
  • Rule of Law
  • Legislative Procedure
  • Single citizenship
  • Cabinet system
  • Parliamentary privileges
  • Bicameral system 
  • Prerogative writs
Irish
  • DPSPs
  • Nomination of members to Rajya Sabha
  • Method of election of President
Russia (Soviet Union)
  • Fundamental Duties
  • The ideal of Justice in the Preamble
France
  • Republic
  • Ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity
South Africa
  • The procedure for amendment of the Constitution.
  • Election of members of the Rajya Sabha.
Japan
  • The procedure established by law

Which of the following constitutional amendments provided for the Right to Education?

  1. 88th amendment
  2. 89th amendment
  3. 87th amendment
  4. 86th amendment

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : 86th amendment

Polity Question 9 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is the 86th amendment.

Key Points

  • The 86th amendment to the Constitution of India in 2002, provided the Right to Education as a Fundamental Right in Part-III of the Constitution.
  • The amendment inserted Article 21A which made the Right to Education a fundamental right for children between 6-14 years.
  • The 86th amendment provided for follow-up legislation for Right to Education Bill 2008 and finally Right to Education Act, 2009.
Amendment Description
87th amendment It extends the usage of 2001 national census population figures for statewide distribution of Parliamentary seats.
88th amendment It extended the statutory cover for levy and utilization of service tax.
89th amendment The National Commission of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes was bifurcated into the National Commission for Scheduled Castes and National Commission for Scheduled Tribes.

The idea of the Concurrent List has been taken from the constitution of ________.

  1. South Africa
  2. Australia
  3. Canada
  4. Germany

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Australia

Polity Question 10 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Australia.

Key Points

The following things have been borrowed from the Constitution of Australia:

  1. Concurrent List.
  2. Freedom of trade.
  3. Commerce and intercourse.
  4. The joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.

Additional Information

  • The other borrowed provisions from different countries and details of those are given in below:
Countries  Borrowed Provisions
Australia
  • Concurrent list
  • Freedom of trade, commerce
  • Joint-sitting of the two Houses of Parliament

Canada

  • Federation with a strong Centre
  • Vesting of residuary powers in the Centre
  • Appointment of state governors by the Centre
  • Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
Ireland
  • Directive Principles of State Policy
  • The nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha
  • Method of election of the President
Japan
  • Procedure Established by law
Russia
  • Fundamental duties
  • Ideals of justice (social, economic, and political) in the Preamble
United Kingdom
  • Parliamentary government
  • Rule of Law
  • Legislative procedure
  • Single Citizenship
  • Cabinet system
  • Prerogative writs
  • Parliamentary privileges
  • Bicameralism
The United States of America
  • Fundamental rights
  • Independence of judiciary
  • Judicial review
  • Impeachment of the president
  • Removal of Supreme Court and High Court judges
  • Post of vice-president
Germany
  • Suspension of Fundamental Rights during emergency
South Africa
  • Procedure for amendment in the Indian Constitution
  • Election of members of Rajya Sabha
France
  • Republic
  • Ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the Preamble

Who was the Prime Minister of India during Indo-Pak war in 1965?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Indira Gandhi
  3. Lal Bahadur Shastri
  4. Rajiv Gandhi 

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : Lal Bahadur Shastri

Polity Question 11 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Lal Bahadur Shastri.

Key Points

  • Lal Bahadur Shastri was the second Prime minister in India.
    • He served as the Prime minister of India from 1964 to 1966.
    • He was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-Pak war in 1965.
    • His birthday also falls on 2nd October along with Mahatma Gandhi's birthday.
    • The famous slogan "Jai Jawan, Jai Kisan" was raised by Lal Bahadur Shastri.
    • He signed on Tashkent Declaration along with the then-President of Pakistan Muhammad Ayub Khan on 10th January 1966.
    • He is the first prime minister to die abroad.
    • He was honoured with the Bharat Ratna in 1966.
    • He was the first person to receive Bharat Ratna posthumously.
    • The resting place of Lal Bahadur Shastri is called Vijayghat.

Additional Information

  • Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-China war in 1962.
  • Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India during the Indo-Pak war in 1971.
  • Rajiv Gandhi was the Prime Minister of India when the Bhopal gas tragedy took place in 1984.

In which city is Indian Railway-Rail Coach Factory located?

  1. Bengaluru
  2. Kapurthala
  3. Chennai
  4. Chittaranjan

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Kapurthala

Polity Question 12 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Kapurthala.

Important Points

  • Kapurthala Rail Coach Factory is a coach manufacturing unit for the Indian Railways, located in the state of Punjab.
  • It is located on the Jalandhar-Firozpur railway line. 
  • Established in 1986, RCF has manufactured more than 30,000 passenger coaches of various types, including self-propelled passenger vehicles, making up more than 50% of the total Indian Railway coach population.
  • It is a production unit with a per-year target of 1025 coaches.
  • This production accounts for over 35 per cent of the total Indian Railway coach population.
  • In the financial year 2013-14, the Rail Coach Factory (RCF) generated a record number of coaches as it achieved the mark of 1701 coaches against an installed capacity of 1500 per annum.
  • RCF manufactured 23 different coach variants for high-speed trains such as Rajdhani, Shatabdi, double-decker, and other trains during the year.
  • A highly cost-effective indigenous technology for the treatment of biowaste in coaches was also developed by the factory in association with DRDE.
  • In 2013–14, approximately 2096 bio-toilets were installed.
  • Linke-Hofmann-Busch (LHB) coaches have already been exported by the factory to Southeast Asian and African countries with Metre Gauge rail networks and the experience of Indian Railways in Meter Gauge rolling stock has proven handy in serving these markets.

                       Railways coach factory, Kapurthala

Where is the National Institute Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) located?

  1. New Delhi
  2. Jaipur
  3. Hisar
  4. Bhopal

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 2 : Jaipur

Polity Question 13 Detailed Solution

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The Correct answer is Jaipur.Key Points:

  • National Institute of Agricultural Marketing (NIAM) is a national level institute set up by the Ministry of Agriculture, on 8 August 1988 at Jaipur, Rajasthan, to cater to the needs of agricultural marketing personnel and to offer specialized Training, Research, Consultancy, and Education in Agricultural Marketing in India and Southeast Asian countries.
  • The institute is dedicated to Chaudhary Charan Singh, the fifth prime minister of India from where it derives its full name, "Chaudhary Charan Singh National Institute of Agricultural Marketing".
  • The Union Minister for Agriculture is the President of the General body of NIAM and the Secretary, Department of Agriculture and Cooperation is the Chairman of the Executive Committee.

Additional Information

Major research institutes of India:-

Research Institute Place
Central Drug research institute Lucknow
Central Leprosy Training and Research Institute Chengalpattu, Tamil Nadu
King Institute of Preventive Medicine Guindy (Chennai)
Central Sugarcane Research Institute Coimbatore
Central Electro-Chemical Research Institute Karaikudi
Central Leather Research Institute Chennai
Central Food Technological Research Institute Mysore (Karnataka)
Central Institute of Virology Pune (Maharashtra)
Indian Lac Research Institute Ranchi (Jharkhand)
Central Jute Technological Research Institute Kolkata
Archaeological Survey of India Calcutta (HQ)
School of Tropical Medicine Kolkata
National Geophysics Research Institute Hyderabad
National Institute of Nutrition Hyderabad
Central Mining Research Institute Dhanbad
Central Salt and Marine Chemical Research Institute Bhavnagar
Central Rice Research Institute Cuttack
Central Forest Research Institute Dehradun (Uttarakhand)
Indian Cancer Research Institute Mumbai

Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides Right to _______.

  1. Work
  2. Privacy
  3. Equality
  4. Education

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 4 : Education

Polity Question 14 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is Education.

Key Points

  • There are six fundamental rights enshrined in Part III (Articles 12 to 35) of the constitution of India.
  • Fundamental rights apply universally to all citizens, irrespective of race, birthplace, religion, caste or gender.
  • Article 21A of the Constitution of India provides the Right to Education.
  • The RTE Act of the Parliament of India was enacted on 4 August 2009 and came into force on 1 April 2010.
  • The Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education of all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right.

Additional Information

  • The Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Constitution are-
Fundamental Right Article
Right to equality  (14 - 18)
Right to freedom  (19 - 22)
Right against exploitation  (23 - 24)

Right to freedom of religion

(25 - 28)
Cultural and educational rights  (29 - 30)
Right to constitutional remedies  (32)

How many articles come under 'Right to Equality'?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 4

Answer (Detailed Solution Below)

Option 3 : 5

Polity Question 15 Detailed Solution

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The correct answer is 5.

Important Points

The Right to Equality provides:

  • For the equal treatment of everyone before the law
  • Prevent discrimination on various grounds
  • Treats everybody as equals in matters of public employment  
  • Abolish untouchability and titles

The article mentioned under the right to equality

       Articles       Provision
Article - 14 The state shall not deny any person equality before the law or the equal protection of the law within the territory of India, on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth.
Article - 15 The state shall not discriminate against any citizen on the grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth, or any of them. 
Article - 16 There shall be equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the state.
Article - 17 Abolition of untouchability.
Article - 18 Abolition of all titles except military and academic.

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