Polity MCQ Quiz - Objective Question with Answer for Polity - Download Free PDF

The correct answer is Option 4.

In News

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) recently registered an ECIR against 29 individuals, including actors and influencers, in connection with an illegal betting app investigation.

Key Points

• Statement I: The ECIR is the formal document by which the ED initiates proceedings under the PMLA. It serves as the equivalent starting point (like an FIR) for ED actions such as attachment of assets and arrests. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• Statement II: ECIR is not mentioned anywhere in the PMLA Act or its Rules. It is considered a non-statutory, internal document created as a matter of departmental procedure. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• Statement III: The ED is not legally required to provide a copy of the ECIR to the accused. This has been upheld by the Supreme Court, differentiating it from a police FIR. Hence, Statement III is incorrect.
• Since Statement II correctly explains Statement I, and Statement III is wrong, the correct option is D.

Additional Information

• ECIR serves as an internal trigger for ED’s investigations under the PMLA.
• ED’s Nodal Ministry: Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
• ED Enforces:
  • Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999
  • Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002
  • Fugitive Economic Offenders Act (FEOA), 2018

The correct answer is Option 1.

In News

• The Kerala High Court recently ordered the conditional arrest of the Liberian container ship MSC Akiteta II under Section 4 of the Admiralty (Jurisdiction and Settlement of Maritime Claims) Act, 2017, reinforcing the power of High Courts in matters of maritime disputes and vessel arrest.

Key Points

• Statement I – Incorrect: The Act does not apply to:
  • Inland vessels as defined under the Inland Vessels Act, 1917,
  • Unlaunched vessels under construction, unless notified by the Central Government. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.
• Statement II: The Act provides admiralty jurisdiction to eight High Courts: Bombay, Calcutta, Madras, Karnataka, Gujarat, Orissa, Kerala, and Hyderabad. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• Statement III: Vessel arrest can be ordered only in connection with maritime claims, not unrelated disputes. Hence, Statement III is incorrect.
• Statement IV: The Act allows arrest of vessels to secure judgment for maritime claims such as:
  • Loss or damage to goods
  • Personal injury
  • Mortgages or ownership disputes

Hence, Statement IV is correct.

Additional Information

• Jurisdiction Types: High Courts exercise both jurisdiction in rem (over the vessel) and jurisdiction in personam (over persons).
• Repealed Laws: The Act repealed several colonial-era statutes including:
  • Admiralty Court Act, 1861
  • Colonial Courts of Admiralty Acts, 1890 & 1891
• Security Undertaking: The High Court may require the claimant to furnish an undertaking to compensate for wrongful arrest of the vessel.

The correct answer is Option 2.

Key Points

• Statement I: The PAC has instructed the DGCA to perform a complete safety audit of all aircraft in response to recent air safety concerns. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• Statement II: The PAC comprises 22 members (15 from Lok Sabha, 7 from Rajya Sabha), but no ministers are allowed as members. Hence, Statement II is incorrect.
• Statement III: The committee indeed raised concerns about arbitrary airfare surges, especially during events like the Maha Kumbh, and pressed for regulatory action. Hence, Statement III is correct.
• Statement IV: The PAC was actually established in 1921, not 1950. The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker, but is not the Speaker themselves and is traditionally from the Opposition. Hence, Statement IV is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The PAC ensures public fund accountability and audits CAG reports.
• It has taken up pressing public issues, including aviation safety, fare pricing, and infrastructure charges at airports.

The correct answer is Option 3.

Key Points

• Statement I: The CGDA furnishes the Annual Audit Certificate to the C&AG through the Ministry of Defence. Hence, Statement I is correct.
• Statement II: The CGDA prepares the Annual Consolidated Accounts of Defence Services Receipts and Charges. Hence, Statement II is correct.
• Statement III: The audit of offset claims has been recently entrusted to DAD. Hence, Statement III is correct.
• Statement IV: Tactical deployment is a military function and not a DAD responsibility. Hence, Statement IV is incorrect.
• Statement V: DAD provides financial advice, payment, and accounting for pay, pensions, and allowances of defence personnel. Hence, Statement V is correct.
• Statement VI: The Defence Budget is tabled by the Ministry of Defence, not by DAD. Hence, Statement VI is incorrect.

Additional Information

• The DAD has been under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence since 1983.
• It was previously under the Ministry of Finance.
• The department has a long history going back to 1750 with the appointment of the first Pay Master at Fort Williams, Calcutta.
• The CGDA is the principal accounting officer for Defence and Civil Estimates.

The correct answer is option 2.

In News

• The post of Chairperson and members of the National Commission for Minorities remains vacant since April 2025, raising concerns about the functioning of the statutory body.

Key Points

• Statement I: Although the Minorities Commission was initially created in 1978 through an executive resolution, it became a statutory body after the enactment of the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.
• Statement II: The Government of India has notified six religious communities as minorities—Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, Zoroastrians (Parsis), and Jains (added in 2014). Hence, Statement II is correct.

Additional Information

• The Commission is under the Ministry of Minority Affairs.
• It comprises a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson, and five members—appointed from minority communities.
• Tenure: 3 years from date of assumption of office (as per Section 4(1) of the Act).
• It advises governments, monitors constitutional safeguards, and addresses complaints related to minority rights.

The correct answer is Prem Behari Narain Raizada.

Key Points

• Prem Behari Narain Raizada (Saxena) is the man who hand wrote the original Constitution of India.
• Raizada over his desk in the Constitution Hall (now Constitution Club) for six months to handwrite 395 articles, 8 schedules, and a preamble in both English and Hindi.
• He used No.303 pens for English calligraphy and Hindoo dip-pen nib from Birmingham for Hindi calligraphy. 

Additional Information

• It all began on August 29, 1947, when the Constituent Assembly set up a Drafting Committee to formulate a Draft Constitution of India.
• After 11 sessions and endless debates and amendments, the Constitution for the newly-independent nation was ready.
• Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru wanted it handwritten in a flowing italic style.
• Prem Behari Narain Raizada (Saxena), a noted calligraphist, was chosen for the task.
• The bespectacled Raizada held a degree from St Stephen’s College (New Delhi) and worked for Govan Brothers (Raymond Eustace Grant Govan, the founder of Govan Brothers, was the first President of the Board of Control for Cricket in India).

Important Points 

• Its weight: 3.75 kilograms.
• Its title: Constitution of India.
• The original copies of the Constitution are kept in special helium-filled cases in the Parliament's library.
• The original manuscript of the Constitution of India that came into force on January 26, 1950.

• The Secretary to the Constituent Assembly- H.V.R. Iyengar.
• The chief draftsman of the constitution in the Constituent Assembly- S.N. Mukerjee
• The Constitutional advisor (Legal advisor) to the Constituent Assembly-Sir B.N. Rau
• The first elected president of The Constituent Assembly- ​Dr Rajendra Prasad.
•  First interim chairman of the Constituent Assembly- Sachchidananda Sinha
• Sachchidananda Sinha took the charges on 9 Dec1946 but resigned on 11 Dec 1946 as Dr Rajendra Prasad was elected as the first chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
• The symbol (seal) of the Constituent Assembly- The elephant.
• The original Preamble illuminated, beautified and ornamented by Beohar Rammanohar Sinha.
• Prem Behari Narain Raizada calligraphed the original Preamble.

The correct answer is Om Birla.

Key Points

• OM Birla has been unanimously elected Speaker of the 17th Lok Sabha.
• OM Birla is also a second term BJP MP from Kota, Rajasthan.
• The Opposition did not field any candidate for the Speaker's post and the motion moved by Prime Minister Modi to choose the Kota-Bundi MP as Speaker was adopted by a voice vote.
• A total of 13 motions were moved in support of Om Birla as the Speaker.
• Birla was declared elected as a speaker by pro-tem Speaker Virendra Kumar.
• The Speaker can be removed from office only on a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by the a majority. It is also mandatory to give a minimum of 14 days' notice of the intention to move the resolution.
• The Speaker may at any time by order in writing delegate to the Deputy Speaker. The vote of Speaker is called “Casting Vote”.
• The first speaker of Lok Sabha was Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar.
• The first female speaker of Lok Sabha is Meira Kumar.

The correct answer is Dharmendra Pradhan.Key Points

• Dharmendra Pradhan is the present Education Minister of India.
• Dharmendra Pradhan is an Indian politician serving as the Minister of Education and Minister of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship in the Government of India.
• He has also been the Minister of Petroleum & Natural Gas and Minister of Steel.  

Additional InformationImportant Cabinet Ministers:

The correct answer is Canada.

Important Points

• The Federal System of India is governed in terms of the Constitution of India.
• The country of India is also referred to as the Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic and has a Parliamentary form of government.
• The nation is basically working according to the Indian Constitution, which was adopted on the 26th of November 1949.
• The federal nature of the Indian constitution was adopted from the Constitution of Canada.

Key Points

• The head of the Executive Union is the President of the country In the Federal System of India.
• The real political, as well as social power, resides in the hands of the Prime Minister, who in turn heads the Council of Ministers.
• According to the Federal System of India, the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers will advise and help the President.
• It is clearly stated in Article 74 (1) of the Indian Constitution, 
  • The Council of Members is answerable to the Lok Sabha or the House of People, as per the Federal System prevailing in India.
  • The Indian Constitution is subject to change, however, this change can only occur after the bill is passed with a majority of votes in the Parliament House.
  • Legislative powers are shared between the State Legislatures and the Parliament, while the rest of the powers are in the hands of the Parliament of India.
• The Federal System in India conveys that the President, the Prime Minister, the Council of Ministers, and the Vice-President, together form the Union Executive

The correct answer is Eighth 

Key Points

• Muthuvel Karunanidhi Stalin is an Indian politician who took oath as the 21st Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu, the 8th person to hold the position.
• Stalin along with the rest of his cabinet took oath as the Chief Minister on 7 May 2021.
• They won 159 seats out 234, with the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) itself winning an absolute majority with 132 seats. 
• In the 2021 Assembly elections, Stalin led the campaign for the Secular Progressive Alliance. 
• Kanjeevaram Natarajan Annadurai served as the fourth and last Chief Minister of Madras State from 1967 to 1969 and was the first Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu (Madras State renamed as Tamil Nadu) for 20 days before his death.
• Janaki Ramachandran was the first woman Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu. She was commonly known as VN Janaki who was a famous actress.​

Additional Information

• New Appointments of Chief Minister of India 2021 and 2022
• 2021  
  • ​Pushkar Singh Dhami - Uttarakhand 
  • M.K. Stalin - Tamil Nadu 
  • Natesan Krishnasamy Rangasamy - Puducherry
  • Basavaraj Somappa Bommai - Karnataka 
  • Himanta Biswa Sarma - Assam 
  • Bhupendrabhai Rajnikantbhai Patel - Gujrat  
• 2022
  • Manik Saha - Tripura 
  • ​Pushkar Singh Dhami - Uttarakhand 
  • Bhagwant Mann - Punjab
  • Shri Sukhvinder Singh Sukhu - Himachal Pradesh

The correct answer is ​21.

Key Points

• The Union Cabinet on 15 December 2021 took the decision to raise the legal age of marriage for women from 18 to 21 years.
• The legal age of marriage for men is already 21 years.
• The government will amend the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, Special Marriage Act, and the Hindu Marriage Act to implement the new decision to increase the legal age of marriage of women.

Important Points

• The proposal was based on the recommendation of the NITI Aayog task force headed by Jaya Jaitly.
• Senior officials of the health ministry, women and child development ministry, and law ministry were members of the task force set up in June 2020.
• The task force was formed to examine matters pertaining to the age of motherhood, imperatives of lowering MMR (Maternal Mortality Rate), improvement of nutritional levels and related issues.
• The task force has also recommended that sex education be formalised and introduced in the school curriculum.

Additional Information

• Personal laws of various religions that deal with marriage have their own standards, often reflecting custom.
• For Hindus, The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 sets 18 years as the minimum age for the bride and 21 years as the minimum age for the groom.
• In Islam, the marriage of a minor who has attained puberty is considered valid.
• The Special Marriage Act, 1954 and the Prohibition of Child Marriage Act, 2006 also prescribe 18 and 21 years as the minimum age of consent for marriage for women and men, respectively.
• For the new age of marriage to be implemented, these laws are expected to be amended.

The correct answer is ​Land and buildings.

• The Constitution of India provides for a division of powers between the Union (Centre) and states.
• It divides all the subjects into 3 lists – Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
• The Union List describe the subjects under the control Centre Government, the State List describes the subjects under the jurisdiction of states being the Concurrent List describes the subjects which are under the joint jurisdiction of the Centre of States.
• Subjects of Three Lists:
  • The Union List Subjects (100 Subjects).
  • State List (61 Subjects).
  • Concurrent List (52 Subjects).
• The subjects which do not fall in these lists that is residuary subjects have been given to the Centre.

Key Points 

• State List enumerates the subjects on which each State Legislature can legislate and such laws operate within the territory of each state.
• The main subjects of the State List are:
  • Public order, police, state court fees, prisons, local government, public health and sanitation, hospitals and dispensaries, pilgrimages within India, intoxicating liquors, relief of disabled and unemployable, libraries, communications, agriculture, animal husbandry, water supply, irrigation and canals, fisheries, road passenger tax and goods tax, taxes on land and building, capitation tax and others.

The correct answer is 12.

Key Points

• The minimum strength of council of ministers in a state as per Constitution (91st Constitutional Amendment Act) is 12 and the maximum is 15 per cent of Legislative Assembly.
• The President of India does not have existed without the council of ministers, but Governor has (at the time of the President’s rule).
• Article 163: Council of Ministers to aid and advise Governor.
• Article 164: Other provisions as to Ministers
• Article 164 (1A): The total number of Ministers, including the Chief Minister, in the Council of Ministers in a State shall not exceed fifteen per cent of the total number of members of the Legislative Assembly of that State.

The correct answer is M.K. Stalin.

Key Points

• Muthuvel Karunanidhi Stalin is an Indian Tamil politician serving as the 8^th and current Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu.
• He has also served as president of the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam party since 28 August 2018.
• About DMK 
  •  Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam is a political party from India, which has a major influence on the state of Tamil Nadu and the union territory of Puducherry.
  • Founder- C. N. Annadurai
• Recent Update- 
  • Tamil Nadu governor Banwarilal Purohit has appointed Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) chief MK Stalin as the chief minister of Tamil Nadu.
  • The 68-year-old is the son of the former five-term Tamil Nadu chief minister, the late M Karunanidhi.
  • The DMK-led alliance won 159 seats, well ahead of the majority mark of 118 seats. The party alone won 133 seats in the election.
  • Tamil Nadu Chief Minister MK Stalin has announced Rs. 5 lakh assistance for children who lost both their parents due to COVID-19.
    • The state government will bear their educational and hostel fees till graduation.
    • It will also provide Rs. 3 lakh to the children who lost one of their parents. 
• About state
  • Chief Minister - M.K. Stalin (June 2021)
  • Governor - R. N. Ravi
  • Lok Sabha seats - 39
  • Rajya Sabha seats - 18